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I’m now blogging about chapter twenty-four of my book.  2 Timothy 3.16 has become the proof text bedrock of the inerrancy debate.  Typically, people quote this verse and then project to say that God has ensured that scripture is inerrant because God is inerrant.  This blog is not about that debate because the verse does not support that debate.

If we read in context, what Scripture was the author referring to?  From reading 2 Tim. 3.15, we find that “scriptures” (a different Greek word than 2 Tim. 3.16) is in plural.  Why is there a plural in 2 Tim. 3.15 while the following verse has a singular?  These and many such questions would lead us to a different debate than about inerrancy.  It leads us to discussion about formation of the Old Testament canon.  What Scripture was Timothy reading? How did he read it?  What were the results?  None of the answers to such questions have to do with the modern/modernistic debate at all.

As I always say, the texts are not at fault.  The interpreter is!

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